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Was ruled of?
Message from beifun posted on 06-05-2011 at 19:09:11 (D | E | F)
Hello,everyone,long time no see.
I've a question as follows.
Example:
France was ruled of and by and for the House of Bourbon.
This sentence can be split into 3 more easily understandable parts:
1.France was ruled of the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>(????)
2.France was ruled by the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>the House of Bourbon ruled France.
3.France was ruled for the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>France was ruled for the benefit of the House of Bourbon first of all and was recognized as private property of Bourbon.
My question:
1. "---->>>>" is my opinion,Are they right or not?
2. "France was ruled of the House of Bourbon." ,what does this mean?
Thank you for your help.
Regards.
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Edited by lucile83 on 06-05-2011 19:49
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Edited by beifun on 07-05-2011 10:04
Message from beifun posted on 06-05-2011 at 19:09:11 (D | E | F)
Hello,everyone,long time no see.
I've a question as follows.
Example:
France was ruled of and by and for the House of Bourbon.
This sentence can be split into 3 more easily understandable parts:
1.France was ruled of the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>(????)
2.France was ruled by the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>the House of Bourbon ruled France.
3.France was ruled for the House of Bourbon.
---->>>>France was ruled for the benefit of the House of Bourbon first of all and was recognized as private property of Bourbon.
My question:
1. "---->>>>" is my opinion,Are they right or not?
2. "France was ruled of the House of Bourbon." ,what does this mean?
Thank you for your help.
Regards.
-------------------
Edited by lucile83 on 06-05-2011 19:49
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Edited by beifun on 07-05-2011 10:04
Re: Was ruled of? from master77, posted on 11-05-2011 at 02:11:35 (D | E)
Hi beifun.
Actually the second sentence is the correct one, the others may be fine under informal situations.
You may ask why? It's because the sentence is a passive voice since you mentioned "France was ruled by the Bourbon House". It's means The Bourbon House is having power over France so France is receiving the action of being ruled. The use of "by" is a must for passive voice.
That's good, you're improving your English!
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Edited by lucile83 on 11-05-2011 07:47
Re: Was ruled of? from beifun, posted on 11-05-2011 at 12:57:37 (D | E)
Hello,
Some supplement to clarify my question.This's a whole and originate sentence quoted from a book,not my own work.
"France was ruled of and by and for the House of Bourbon"
(the House of Bourbon is one of former French royal family)
The usage of three prepositions "of/by/for" seems rather ingenious.Distinctly,the author has combined three sentences into one.
But,"be ruled of" is a strange usage,especially "of". Regarding the other two prepositions "by/for", I‘ve already understood.
1.Why does it use "of"? Is "be ruled of" a rare modern usage in English ?
2.What's the certain meaning of "France was ruled of the House of Bourbon"
I'll be grateful to anyone rendering assistance.
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Edited by beifun on 11-05-2011 12:58
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Edited by lucile83 on 11-05-2011 17:40
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